Jerome: The Translator on Language

Jerome was already a part of my previous rotation, and I have also written about his acquaintance with Orosius and correspondence with Augustine. I am reading F. A. Wright's translation of Select Letters for the Loeb Classical Library. Among the letters I read for the current unit of history was Letter XXII "To Eustochium: The Virgin's Profession." Jerome is most famous for his translation of the Bible into Latin from its original languages, Hebrew and Greek; known as the Vulgate, this was the version the Catholic Church used until well past the Reformation. According to the introduction to the volume, Jerome worked on his translation of the New Testament during the years 382 to 385, while he was in Rome (xi). His epistle to Eustochium was written in 384.

At Chapter 31 of the letter, Jerome writes something that gob smacked me when explaining a famous passage from the Gospel of Matthew (6:24). The evangelist quotes Jesus as distinguishing between pursuit of "G[-]d and Mammon." Jerome says, "By Mammon understand riches: for in the heathen tongue of the Syrians riches are so called" (italics added). Though it's usually cumbersome, I was glad to have the original Latin facing me with this passage, so I could see that the word "gentili" is what Wright translates as "heathen." First off, I assume that Jerome considers Syriac and Aramaic to be basically the same language; if that's not true, it should be close enough. Biblical scholars often think that passages that have an Aramaic character in the Gospels are more likely to be authentic to Jesus' own teachings, though the method is not infallible. The use of "Mammon" is an obvious case of this, for Matthew retains the Aramaic word rather than translating into Greek. Whether Jesus actually said the passage or not, Matthew wants us to think so, and if he did say it, "Mammon" wasn't the only word he said in Aramaic – the whole teaching was in that language.

So why would Jerome call it a "gentile" language?!? (I will eschew the translation of "heathen" because that has a negative connotation I don't think Jerome intended.) Even with Christians not being included as gentiles, how could Jerome label the words that Jesus spoke in that way. Despite being so committed to the translation process, he reminds me of the admonition one sometimes sees today against thinking that Jesus spoke the language of the King James Bible. Aramaic may not be the Holy Tongue, but it is closer – both linguistically, and (to Christians) because Jesus spoke it – than Greek; Greek is the language of the New Testament, but some parts of the Jewish Bible are Aramaic rather than Hebrew. Considering that until Jerome the Bible only existed in Latin in very poor translations, Latin is even further from "holiness". If he had said "foreign" or even "barbarian," I could understand, but already in those times, "gentile" referred to someone outside the Abrahamic tradition. Either the language is Jewish/Christian enough, in which case the designation is misplaced, or it really is gentile, in which case Latin is too so the words has no use.

A different translation (although the pertinent passage is no different) of Jerome's Letter to Eustochium is available online at Fordham University.